By all public accounts (and I know of no contradictory non-public information), what he bought was a company, and if that company owns development non-voting stake, then it is still development non-voting stake after he buys the company. Nothing changes by just changing the names of the shareholders.

If something about the company is not what he thought it was, that's an issue for the parties to that transaction to work out, and not our concern.

We don't even know that to be the case though. For all we actually know, he could have been fully aware of it being development non-voting stake and there is really no issue here beyond working out the details of how that gets enforced. Personally I hope that is the case, but, like you, I don't know.

Unless you do actually have some relevant facts to share. If not please stop making things up.